ugottabelieve
New member
Hello I posted a question on r/personalfinace where I asked why are returns expressed in EUR lower then when they are expressed in USD. Someone replied that it's because of the exchange rate between these two but that stocks don't have "base" currency, they are worth what they are worth. This would mean that the "stronger" currency will always yield lower returns.
However when I look at [this](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AEuCl2FmJ-Y&t=600s&ab_channel=ThePlainBage) video by Plain Bagel, 4 minutes in He presents the case where there are "US Stocks" and he is trying to "match" the returns of those stocks (if CAD gets stronger compared to USD). This would mean that there IS a base currency and that we are trying to "match" the returns of that inherent currency.
I am confused now.
However when I look at [this](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AEuCl2FmJ-Y&t=600s&ab_channel=ThePlainBage) video by Plain Bagel, 4 minutes in He presents the case where there are "US Stocks" and he is trying to "match" the returns of those stocks (if CAD gets stronger compared to USD). This would mean that there IS a base currency and that we are trying to "match" the returns of that inherent currency.
I am confused now.