So I am down the butthole, regarding dividend taxation, ETFs Fund domicile and VT.
There are quite a few good resources on the net e.g. [1] [2] [3] and [4] [5] [6]
https://preview.redd.it/bjdtc8259la...bp&s=c2dc53f3611b1cb2b3c2e923158a70ecb5b62893
Suppose I'll plan to invest 100k in VT with an annual dividend of 2% and TER 0.07. Following the above calculation, I should bebetter off ~0.3% short with the IE copy VWRL with a TER of 0.22% TER? And I am unable to reclaim the 15% via DA-1
As a VT owner, do you fill out DA-1, is it just a formality?
Why is then IE/LU recommended vs. US?
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Updated my question.
There are quite a few good resources on the net e.g. [1] [2] [3] and [4] [5] [6]
https://preview.redd.it/bjdtc8259la...bp&s=c2dc53f3611b1cb2b3c2e923158a70ecb5b62893
Suppose I'll plan to invest 100k in VT with an annual dividend of 2% and TER 0.07. Following the above calculation, I should be
As a VT owner, do you fill out DA-1, is it just a formality?
Why is then IE/LU recommended vs. US?
---
Updated my question.