If I look at the performance of these two funds, although the Acc. version is a few pounds more expensive per unit, the performance is identical as far as I can see.
If the Acc. version is constantly reinvesting dividends, and the Income version isn't, wouldn't we expect to see a gradual divergence of the value: the Acc. fund chart trending more upwards over time compared to the Income chart? The bar chart view of growth/loss is almost identical - a .1% delta in just one of the years.
I think I must be looking at it wrongly as I can't see any benefit of the Acc. fund - why not take the dividend income then and reinvest it manually and actually buy more units?
Help understanding this basic question appreciated!
If the Acc. version is constantly reinvesting dividends, and the Income version isn't, wouldn't we expect to see a gradual divergence of the value: the Acc. fund chart trending more upwards over time compared to the Income chart? The bar chart view of growth/loss is almost identical - a .1% delta in just one of the years.
I think I must be looking at it wrongly as I can't see any benefit of the Acc. fund - why not take the dividend income then and reinvest it manually and actually buy more units?
Help understanding this basic question appreciated!