afterhisownheart
New member
Hi there
I started learning about the markets in 2010 and had spells of day trading (whilst working full time). It had mixed success but it was fair to say that I never had an edge in my strategy. Afte a while, I laid off as I did'nt want to burn through hard earned cash.
I'm almost 40, been paying 2 sets of bills (folks too) since I was 21. I realise (very late!) that i'm going to be in trouble as I get older as I've not given myself a chance to be financially independent. Now I've managed to take of bills, got a better paying job and been more disciplined with my saving. I have an OK amount (by UK standards) but it's nowhere near enough to even get property.
So, I want to ask experienced financial gurus on here. Is it realistic for an average joe to make 1% per day (I obviously assume there's a lot of effort involved!)
Using this formula - ((P*(1+i)[sup]n)[/sup] - P)
where P=principle, i=interest & n=periods(days in my case), a start point of £5000 over 200 days would result in £31580
Firstly, is that correct? Secondly, is this even achievable? Lastly, if not, what is realistic?
I'm not a quant trader or anything, programmer turned project manager...
I started learning about the markets in 2010 and had spells of day trading (whilst working full time). It had mixed success but it was fair to say that I never had an edge in my strategy. Afte a while, I laid off as I did'nt want to burn through hard earned cash.
I'm almost 40, been paying 2 sets of bills (folks too) since I was 21. I realise (very late!) that i'm going to be in trouble as I get older as I've not given myself a chance to be financially independent. Now I've managed to take of bills, got a better paying job and been more disciplined with my saving. I have an OK amount (by UK standards) but it's nowhere near enough to even get property.
So, I want to ask experienced financial gurus on here. Is it realistic for an average joe to make 1% per day (I obviously assume there's a lot of effort involved!)
Using this formula - ((P*(1+i)[sup]n)[/sup] - P)
where P=principle, i=interest & n=periods(days in my case), a start point of £5000 over 200 days would result in £31580
Firstly, is that correct? Secondly, is this even achievable? Lastly, if not, what is realistic?
I'm not a quant trader or anything, programmer turned project manager...